[Mr. Finnell, I
do not wish to assume the position of instructing you personally. I offer this response for your consideration
only because your comments were placed under my article, so I had to assume you
were referring to it.]
The purpose of
my article is to focus on the discovery that Jesus who is called the Messiah
(the Christ) is, in fact, God - the offended party in the matter of sin. Therefore, the subject of the ordinance of
baptism is irrelevant to it. (Compare Acts 3:19 where, when giving the
prerequisite for the wiping away of sins, Peter also offers no mention of baptism.)
To respond to
your comments regarding that ordinance, it would seem prudent to remind
ourselves that belief, or trust in Jesus Christ as Messiah and Lord is the essential event, if you will, in
becoming a Christian. Paul makes it
clear in Eph 1:13 what happens in the heart of every believer at the moment
such faith occurs: “In Him,
you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your
salvation-- having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit
of promise.”
Water baptism, then, is a subsequent event - an outward public affirmation of
that regenerative transformation that has taken place in the life of the
believer, namely the Holy Spirit having come in to take up residence in the
heart. Water baptism, therefore, is an
act of obedience for believers and does not precede saving faith.
Interestingly,
Paul clarifies his own priorities regarding water baptism in 1Cor 1:14-17: “I thank
God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, that no man should say
you were baptized in my name. Now I did
baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I
baptized any other. For Christ did not
send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, that
the cross of Christ should not be made void.”
To those
legalistic Judaizers who followed Paul around to irritate him and make general
nuisances of themselves regarding their presumed priority of the Jewish ordinance
of circumcision, he responded sarcastically in Gal 5:12: “Would
that those who are troubling you would even mutilate themselves.”
I think we can safely project Paul’s feelings,
were he here among us today, to the current misplaced overemphasis of the
Christian ordinance of baptism over saving faith, and to those who can
see nothing else but the doctrine of
baptism and who attempt to make the Good News of salvation in Jesus
Christ equivalent to baptism, he
might in similar fashion say something like:
“Would that those who are troubling
you would even drown themselves.”
Paul’s
perspective on water baptism is well worth emulating. It should behoove us to practice exegesis,
not eisegesis, when approaching the Scriptures, and to attempt to discover what
the Holy Spirit wishes to say to us.
Our goal should be to understand the WHOLE counsel of God, not to
pervert it because we deem our own private interpretation as sacred.
I am quite
familiar with your doctrine. It is a
high tower built upon straw - misunderstanding, ignorance, and prejudice. Much like the ‘King James only folks’ – no
amount of evidence will allow them to consider that they might be mistaken,
even in the slightest degree. And so the
debate goes on and on as it has done for 20 centuries.
Nevertheless, I
offer this in regard to your reference to Acts 2:38 and the definition of ‘for’
in the phrase ‘eivj a;fesin tw/n a`martiw/n u`mw/n’ (‘for the forgiveness of your sins’). We should be reminded that there are ten
major definitions of this English word and several sub-definitions of those
ten; but one of those major definitions is ‘because of’. So, some basic clarification is in
order: 1. ‘For’ does not always mean ‘in order to obtain’
and 2. ‘for’ sometimes does mean ‘because
of’. However, the original Greek should
be our major focus and there are several words which are translated ‘for’. In this passage the Greek word translated
‘for’ is the preposition ‘eivj’, which has many shades of meaning,
depending upon the context, and one major definition of this word is ‘because
of’. [Permit me to say at this point
that I take no definitive position on how ‘eivj’ should be
translated in this verse; I prefer to allow other Scriptures to clarify the
meaning here. But I do know, and honest
theologians agree, that a person will often choose which definition he prefers
here based upon the tenets of his own theology.]
* * * * * * * * * *
Following are
some examples of passages in the NT where ‘eivj’ has clearly a
shade of meaning other than ‘in order to obtain’:
In Mat 10:41, ‘eivj’
is translated ‘in’ in the KJV and the NAS but is translated ‘because of’ in the
following versions: NIV, ESV, NJB, NIB,
NAB. Clearly the meaning in context is
‘on the basis of’ or ‘because of’ being a prophet.
In Mat 12:41, ‘eivj’
is translated ‘at’ in most English versions because the context clearly
indicates it was ‘because of’ the preaching of Jonah.
Other passages for
your consideration: Rom 4:20; Mat 3:11;
Mrk 2:18; Rom 11:32; Tit 3:14.
* * * * * * * * * *
E. L. Cardwell
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